BoardQBank • NPLEX Part II Core Clinical Science Preparation
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1

Acute Coronary Syndrome

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 58-year-old woman presents with 40 minutes of pressure-like discomfort in the upper abdomen and lower chest. The symptoms began while she was carrying groceries upstairs. She reports nausea, sweating, unusual fatigue and mild shortness of breath. Medical history ● Type 2 diabetes mellitus ● Hypertension ● Dyslipidemia Medications ● Metformin ● Losartan ● Atorvastatin Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.8°C ● Blood pressure: 154/92 mmHg ● Heart rate: 102/min ● Respiratory rate: 22/min ● Oxygen saturation: 94% on room air Physical examination The patient appears anxious and diaphoretic. Cardiac rhythm is regular. Lungs are clear. The discomfort is not reproduced by chest-wall palpation.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-001

Which additional history question is most important?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Whether the discomfort radiates to the arm, jaw or back
Radiation to the arm, jaw, shoulder or back increases concern for myocardial ischemia. Women and patients with diabetes may present with epigastric discomfort, fatigue, nausea or dyspnea rather than classic central chest pain. Why the other options are incorrect ● A: Laundry detergent exposure does not explain exertional pressure with diaphoresis. ● C: Seasonal allergies do not account for this presentation. ● D: Dietary fibre is not clinically relevant to the immediate differential.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-002

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute coronary syndrome
The exertional pressure, diaphoresis, nausea, dyspnea and cardiovascular risk factors strongly suggest acute myocardial ischemia. Why the other options are incorrect ● B: Costochondritis usually produces localized, reproducible chest-wall tenderness. ● C: Reflux can cause burning discomfort but does not adequately explain diaphoresis and exertional symptoms. ● D: Panic disorder is a diagnosis of exclusion when potentially fatal cardiopulmonary disease is possible.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-003

Which finding would most strongly suggest aortic dissection rather than acute coronary syndrome?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Tearing pain radiating to the back with unequal arm pressures
Abrupt, severe tearing pain, pulse deficits and blood-pressure differences between the arms are concerning for acute aortic dissection.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-004

What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Activate emergency medical services
Suspected acute coronary syndrome requires immediate emergency assessment, electrocardiography, cardiac biomarkers and time-sensitive treatment.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap Do not diagnose reflux, anxiety or musculoskeletal pain before excluding myocardial ischemia in a patient with compatible symptoms and cardiovascular risk factors. Case overview The essential sequence is: Recognize an anginal equivalent → identify cardiovascular risk → prioritize acute coronary syndrome → activate emergency care.
2

Pulmonary Embolism

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 34-year-old woman presents with sudden shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She returned from a 10-hour flight two days ago. Medical history ● No previous cardiopulmonary disease ● No recent infection Medications ● Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.2°C ● Blood pressure: 108/68 mmHg ● Heart rate: 118/min ● Respiratory rate: 28/min ● Oxygen saturation: 90% on room air Physical examination Breath sounds are equal bilaterally. The right calf is swollen and tender and measures 3 cm larger than the left calf.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-005

Which historical feature most increases this patient’s risk?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Estrogen-containing contraception
Estrogen exposure increases venous thromboembolism risk. Prolonged immobilization during air travel adds another important risk factor.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-006

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Pulmonary embolism
Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic pain, tachycardia, hypoxemia and unilateral calf swelling strongly indicate pulmonary embolism arising from deep-vein thrombosis.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-007

Which examination finding would make tension pneumothorax more likely?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Unilateral absent breath sounds with hypotension
Tension pneumothorax typically causes severe respiratory distress, unilateral absent breath sounds and obstructive shock. This patient’s equal breath sounds make it less likely.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-008

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Arrange immediate emergency transfer
The patient has probable pulmonary embolism with hypoxemia and marked tachycardia. She requires emergency imaging, monitoring and anticoagulation assessment. Why calf massage is inappropriate Massaging a limb with suspected deep-vein thrombosis is inappropriate and may theoretically contribute to embolization.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap A normal or nearly normal lung examination does not exclude pulmonary embolism. Case overview The diagnostic pattern is: Venous thromboembolism risk + unilateral leg findings + sudden pleuritic symptoms + hypoxemia.
3

Acute Ischemic Stroke

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 69-year-old man develops sudden difficulty speaking and weakness of the right arm while eating breakfast. His spouse states that he was normal 35 minutes earlier. Medical history ● Hypertension ● Atrial fibrillation ● Type 2 diabetes mellitus Medications ● Metformin ● Amlodipine ● The patient stopped taking his anticoagulant two months ago Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.7°C ● Blood pressure: 182/98 mmHg ● Heart rate: 106/min, irregularly irregular ● Respiratory rate: 18/min ● Oxygen saturation: 96% Physical examination The patient has right facial droop, right-arm weakness and expressive aphasia.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-009

Which historical information is most important to establish immediately?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. The exact time he was last known well
Stroke treatment eligibility depends heavily on the time of symptom onset or the last time the patient was known to be neurologically normal.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-010

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute ischemic stroke
Sudden focal neurological deficits involving language, face and arm strongly suggest an acute stroke. Why the other options are incorrect ● B: Bell palsy affects the peripheral facial nerve and does not cause aphasia or arm weakness. ● C: Migraine can cause neurological symptoms, but stroke must be presumed in this high-risk patient. ● D: Peripheral neuropathy does not produce abrupt aphasia and unilateral facial weakness.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-011

Which rapid bedside assessment is essential because it can mimic stroke?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Capillary blood glucose
Severe hypoglycemia can cause focal deficits, confusion and altered consciousness and must be identified quickly.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-012

What is the most appropriate action?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Activate emergency stroke transport immediately
Acute stroke is a time-critical emergency. The patient requires immediate neuroimaging and assessment for reperfusion treatment.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap Do not give oral food, fluids or medication until swallowing safety has been assessed. Case overview The correct priority is: Identify sudden focal neurological loss → determine last-known-well time → check glucose → activate the stroke pathway.
4

Acute Appendicitis

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 23-year-old man reports abdominal pain that began near the umbilicus approximately 14 hours ago. The pain has migrated to the right lower quadrant. He has anorexia, nausea and one episode of vomiting. Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.0°C ● Blood pressure: 122/76 mmHg ● Heart rate: 98/min ● Respiratory rate: 18/min Physical examination There is localized tenderness and guarding at McBurney point. Coughing increases the pain.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-013

Which symptom sequence is most characteristic of acute appendicitis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Periumbilical pain followed by right-lower-quadrant pain
Appendicitis commonly begins with vague visceral pain near the umbilicus and later localizes to the right lower quadrant as the parietal peritoneum becomes irritated.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-014

Which examination maneuver may support the diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Rovsing sign
Pain in the right lower quadrant produced by palpating the left lower quadrant is a positive Rovsing sign.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-015

Which finding would most strongly suggest perforation or generalized peritonitis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Rebound tenderness with a rigid abdomen
Diffuse rigidity, rebound tenderness, toxicity and hemodynamic instability suggest perforation and peritoneal inflammation.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-016

What is the most appropriate disposition?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Arrange urgent emergency evaluation
Suspected appendicitis requires urgent surgical assessment. Laxatives and interventions that delay evaluation are inappropriate.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Gastroenteritis ● Mesenteric adenitis ● Crohn disease ● Ureteric stone ● Testicular torsion ● Ectopic pregnancy or ovarian pathology in patients capable of pregnancy NPLEX trap Vomiting usually follows the onset of pain in appendicitis. Vomiting that clearly precedes pain may suggest another gastrointestinal cause. Case overview The classic diagnostic sequence is: Central abdominal pain → migration to the right lower quadrant → localized peritoneal findings → urgent referral.
5

Ruptured Ectopic Pregnancy

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden left-sided pelvic pain, vaginal spotting, dizziness and pain near the right shoulder. Her last menstrual period was approximately seven weeks ago. Medical history ● Previous pelvic inflammatory disease Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.6°C ● Blood pressure: 88/58 mmHg ● Heart rate: 124/min ● Respiratory rate: 24/min Physical examination She appears pale and distressed. The abdomen is tender with guarding.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-017

Which point in the history is most clinically important?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
Previous pelvic inflammatory disease can damage the fallopian tubes and increase the risk of ectopic implantation.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-018

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Amenorrhea, unilateral pelvic pain, vaginal bleeding, hypotension, tachycardia and referred shoulder pain suggest intraperitoneal hemorrhage from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-019

What is the likely mechanism of the shoulder pain?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Diaphragmatic irritation from intraperitoneal blood
Blood irritating the diaphragm may produce referred pain through the phrenic nerve to the shoulder.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-020

What is the most appropriate action?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Activate emergency medical services immediately
The patient shows signs of hemorrhagic shock and requires immediate emergency and surgical care.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Ovarian torsion ● Ruptured ovarian cyst ● Pelvic inflammatory disease ● Spontaneous abortion ● Appendicitis NPLEX trap A patient with reproductive potential, abdominal or pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding should be considered pregnant until pregnancy has been reasonably excluded. Case overview The red-flag combination is: Missed period + unilateral pelvic pain + bleeding + shock or shoulder pain.
6

Acute Bacterial Meningitis

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 21-year-old university resident presents with severe headache, fever, vomiting and photophobia. His roommate reports that he has become increasingly confused over the last two hours. Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.6°C ● Blood pressure: 96/60 mmHg ● Heart rate: 126/min ● Respiratory rate: 24/min Physical examination The patient is drowsy and has marked neck stiffness. A non-blanching petechial rash is present on the lower extremities.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-021

Which finding is the strongest indication of a medical emergency?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Fever with altered mental status and petechiae
This combination suggests bacterial meningitis with possible meningococcemia and evolving sepsis.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-022

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute bacterial meningitis
Fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, altered consciousness and a petechial rash strongly suggest bacterial meningitis.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-023

Which examination finding could indicate increased intracranial pressure?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Papilledema
Papilledema may indicate elevated intracranial pressure and can influence the sequence of neuroimaging and lumbar puncture.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-024

What is the most appropriate immediate response?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Arrange immediate emergency transfer using appropriate infection precautions
Suspected bacterial meningitis requires immediate hospital treatment. Diagnostic procedures must not cause dangerous delays in antimicrobial therapy.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Viral meningitis ● Encephalitis ● Subarachnoid hemorrhage ● Severe migraine ● Brain abscess NPLEX trap Absence of every component of the classic meningitis triad does not exclude meningitis. Altered mental status or petechiae substantially increases urgency. Case overview The priority sequence is: Recognize CNS infection → identify sepsis or meningococcemia → use precautions → transfer immediately.
7

Cauda Equina Syndrome

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 52-year-old man presents with severe low-back pain following heavy lifting. The pain initially radiated down the left leg. During the last 12 hours, he has developed bilateral leg weakness and numbness around the perineum. Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.0°C ● Blood pressure: 136/84 mmHg ● Heart rate: 94/min ● Respiratory rate: 16/min Physical examination There is reduced bilateral ankle strength and diminished lower-extremity reflexes.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-025

Which additional history question is most important?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Whether he has urinary retention or incontinence
Bladder or bowel dysfunction accompanying saddle anesthesia and bilateral neurological deficits strongly suggests cauda equina syndrome.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-026

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Cauda equina syndrome
Saddle sensory loss and bilateral motor deficits indicate compression of the lumbosacral nerve roots.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-027

Which additional physical finding would support the diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Reduced anal sphincter tone
Sacral nerve-root dysfunction may cause reduced anal tone and loss of bladder or bowel control.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-028

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Arrange emergency hospital assessment
Cauda equina syndrome requires emergency magnetic resonance imaging and surgical evaluation. Delayed decompression may cause permanent neurological dysfunction.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important alternative diagnosis Spinal epidural abscess should be strongly considered when back pain and neurological deficits occur with: ● Fever ● Immunosuppression ● Recent bacteremia ● Spinal procedure ● Injection-drug use NPLEX trap Do not perform spinal manipulation when cauda equina syndrome, spinal cord compression, fracture, malignancy or infection is suspected. Case overview The essential red flags are: Saddle anesthesia + bilateral weakness + bladder or bowel dysfunction.
8

Septic Arthritis

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 66-year-old woman presents with rapidly progressive pain and swelling of the right knee. She cannot bear weight and reports fever and chills. Medical history ● Type 2 diabetes mellitus ● Rheumatoid arthritis ● Right knee prosthesis Medications ● Methotrexate ● Prednisone ● Metformin Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.0°C ● Blood pressure: 104/66 mmHg ● Heart rate: 116/min ● Respiratory rate: 22/min Physical examination The right knee is hot, swollen and erythematous. Both active and passive range of motion cause severe pain.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-029

Which feature most strongly supports an intra-articular process?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Severe pain during passive range of motion
Marked pain with both active and passive movement suggests pathology within the joint, including septic arthritis.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-030

What is the most important diagnosis to exclude?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Septic arthritis
Acutely inflamed monoarthritis with fever, immunosuppression and a prosthetic joint must be treated as septic arthritis until proven otherwise.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-031

Which diagnostic procedure is most important?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Synovial-fluid aspiration and analysis
Synovial fluid should be analyzed for cell count, Gram stain, culture and crystals. The presence of crystals does not completely exclude concurrent infection.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-032

What is the most appropriate management priority?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Arrange urgent hospital evaluation
Septic arthritis can rapidly destroy cartilage and lead to bacteremia or sepsis. Urgent aspiration, antimicrobial treatment and possible surgical drainage are required.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Gout ● Pseudogout ● Hemarthrosis ● Reactive arthritis ● Acute inflammatory arthritis NPLEX trap Do not inject corticosteroid into an acutely inflamed joint until infection has been adequately excluded. Case overview The high-risk pattern is: Acute hot monoarthritis + fever + severe passive-motion pain + immunosuppression or prosthetic joint.
9

Rotator-Cuff Impingement

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 42-year-old painter reports gradually worsening right-shoulder pain over three months. The pain is aggravated by overhead work and when lying on the affected side. Vital signs Normal. Physical examination ● Active abduction is painful between approximately 60° and 120°. ● Passive range of motion is nearly normal. ● Hawkins–Kennedy test is positive. ● There is no deformity or neurological deficit.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-033

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Rotator-cuff impingement syndrome
A painful arc with overhead activity, a positive Hawkins–Kennedy test and preserved passive movement support subacromial impingement involving the rotator cuff.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-034

Which finding would make adhesive capsulitis more likely?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Marked restriction of both active and passive range of motion
Adhesive capsulitis produces global restriction of active and passive shoulder movement, especially external rotation.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-035

Which test is most useful when evaluating a possible full-thickness rotator-cuff tear?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Drop-arm test
Inability to smoothly lower the abducted arm may indicate a significant rotator-cuff tear, particularly involving the supraspinatus.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-036

Which new finding would warrant more urgent imaging or specialist assessment?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Persistent weakness following acute trauma
Traumatic onset with significant weakness raises concern for a full-thickness tendon tear or other structural injury.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Rotator-cuff tear ● Adhesive capsulitis ● Acromioclavicular joint disease ● Biceps tendinopathy ● Cervical radiculopathy ● Glenohumeral arthritis NPLEX trap Preserved passive motion with painful active overhead movement supports rotator-cuff or subacromial pathology. Loss of passive motion suggests adhesive capsulitis or advanced joint disease. Case overview This case tests non-emergency clinical reasoning: Identify the movement pattern → distinguish active from passive restriction → select the appropriate orthopedic test.
10

Acute Mania With Psychotic Features

4 questions · History, Examination & Clinical Reasoning

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 32-year-old woman is brought by her sister because she has slept fewer than two hours per night for six days. She speaks rapidly, says she has discovered a method to become a billionaire and has spent $18,000 during the past week. She reports hearing a voice telling her that she has been selected for a “special global mission.” She becomes irritable when her family questions her plans. Medical history ● Previous depressive episode ● No known neurological disease Medications ● Sertraline, started six weeks ago ● The patient recently doubled the dose without medical advice Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.1°C ● Blood pressure: 148/90 mmHg ● Heart rate: 108/min ● Respiratory rate: 18/min Mental-status examination ● Bright, flamboyant clothing ● Psychomotor agitation ● Pressured speech ● Expansive and irritable mood ● Flight of ideas ● Grandiose delusions ● Auditory hallucinations ● Poor insight and impaired judgment
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-037

Which issue must be assessed immediately?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Risk of suicide, violence or inability to care for herself
Immediate risk assessment is necessary in any patient with severe mania, psychosis, agitation or impaired judgment.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-038

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Manic episode with psychotic features
Decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, grandiosity, excessive spending, flight of ideas and marked impairment are characteristic of mania. Delusions and hallucinations indicate psychotic features.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-039

Which alternative cause must be actively considered?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Substance- or medication-induced mood disorder
Stimulants, corticosteroids, antidepressants, substances and several medical conditions can precipitate manic symptoms. The unsupervised increase in sertraline is clinically relevant. Other medical differentials include: ● Hyperthyroidism ● Neurological disease ● Medication effects ● Substance intoxication ● Substance withdrawal
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-040

What is the most appropriate disposition?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Arrange urgent emergency psychiatric assessment
Psychosis, dangerous spending, severe sleep deprivation, poor judgment and possible inability to maintain safety require urgent psychiatric assessment.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap A patient with mania may deny feeling unwell. Lack of subjective distress does not indicate clinical stability. Case overview The clinical priority is: Identify mania → assess psychosis and safety → consider medication or substance causes → arrange urgent psychiatric evaluation.
11

Acute Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 61-year-old man presents with dizziness, weakness and two episodes of vomiting dark, coffee-ground material. He reports passing a black, sticky stool earlier that morning. Medical history ● Osteoarthritis ● Hypertension ● Previous dyspepsia Medications ● Ibuprofen, 600 mg three times daily ● Amlodipine Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.7°C ● Blood pressure: 92/58 mmHg while supine ● Heart rate: 118/min ● Respiratory rate: 22/min ● Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air Physical examination The patient appears pale and diaphoretic. His abdomen is mildly tender in the epigastric region without rigidity. Rectal examination reveals black, tarry stool.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-041

Which medication is the most important risk factor for this presentation?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Ibuprofen
Regular NSAID use increases the risk of gastric or duodenal mucosal injury, ulcer formation and gastrointestinal bleeding. Why the other options are incorrect ● A: Amlodipine is not a typical cause of peptic-ulcer bleeding. ● C: Therapeutic acetaminophen does not usually cause gastrointestinal mucosal ulceration. ● D: Loratadine does not significantly increase gastrointestinal bleeding risk.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-042

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding
Coffee-ground emesis and melena indicate bleeding proximal to the ligament of Treitz. Hypotension, tachycardia and pallor indicate clinically significant blood loss.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-043

Which additional historical finding would increase concern for esophageal variceal bleeding?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Chronic liver disease and heavy alcohol use
Portal hypertension caused by advanced liver disease can produce gastroesophageal varices.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-044

What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Activate emergency medical services
The patient is hemodynamically unstable and requires immediate resuscitation, blood testing, intravenous access and urgent endoscopic evaluation. Unstable patients with severe upper gastrointestinal bleeding should undergo endoscopy after initial resuscitation.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Peptic-ulcer bleeding ● Esophageal or gastric varices ● Erosive gastritis ● Mallory–Weiss tear ● Upper gastrointestinal malignancy NPLEX trap Do not be falsely reassured by the absence of severe abdominal pain. Significant gastrointestinal hemorrhage may occur with minimal abdominal tenderness. Case overview Hematemesis or coffee-ground emesis + melena + hemodynamic instability = emergency gastrointestinal hemorrhage.
12

Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 67-year-old woman presents with sudden severe pain in the right eye, blurred vision, headache, nausea and vomiting. The symptoms began while she was watching a movie in a dark theatre. Medical history ● Hyperopia ● Hypertension Medications ● Hydrochlorothiazide ● Recently started an anticholinergic medication for urinary urgency Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.9°C ● Blood pressure: 168/94 mmHg ● Heart rate: 102/min Physical examination The right eye is intensely red. The cornea appears cloudy. The right pupil is moderately dilated, irregular and poorly reactive to light. Visual acuity is reduced.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-045

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
The sudden painful red eye, blurred vision, halos, nausea, corneal clouding and poorly reactive mid-dilated pupil are characteristic of acute angle closure.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-046

Which symptom most strongly distinguishes this condition from uncomplicated conjunctivitis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Severe ocular pain with reduced vision
Conjunctivitis usually causes irritation, discharge or itching without severe pain, a fixed pupil or major loss of visual acuity.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-047

Which medication history is clinically relevant?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Recent use of a medication that causes pupillary dilation
Anticholinergic and sympathomimetic medications may precipitate angle closure in anatomically susceptible patients.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-048

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Arrange immediate emergency ophthalmologic evaluation
Acute angle closure is an ophthalmic emergency because persistently elevated intraocular pressure can cause permanent visual loss.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Anterior uveitis ● Keratitis ● Corneal abrasion ● Scleritis ● Conjunctivitis NPLEX trap A red eye accompanied by severe pain, impaired vision, vomiting or an abnormal pupil should not be treated as routine conjunctivitis. Case overview Painful red eye + reduced vision + cloudy cornea + fixed or poorly reactive pupil = emergency referral.
13

Thyroid Storm

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 43-year-old woman with Graves disease presents with fever, agitation, vomiting, diarrhea and severe palpitations. She stopped taking methimazole three weeks ago because she felt better. She developed cough and dysuria several days ago. Vital signs ● Temperature: 40.1°C ● Blood pressure: 154/72 mmHg ● Heart rate: 164/min, irregularly irregular ● Respiratory rate: 30/min ● Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air Physical examination The patient is restless and confused. Her skin is hot and moist. A diffuse goitre and fine hand tremor are present. Bibasilar crackles and mild lower-extremity edema are noted.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-049

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Thyroid storm
Severe hyperthermia, marked tachycardia, gastrointestinal symptoms, altered mental status and cardiovascular decompensation in a patient with untreated hyperthyroidism strongly suggest thyroid storm.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-050

Which factor most likely precipitated this episode?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Infection combined with discontinuation of antithyroid medication
Infection and interruption of antithyroid therapy are established precipitants of severe thyrotoxicosis.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-051

Which finding most strongly distinguishes thyroid storm from uncomplicated hyperthyroidism?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Altered mental status and organ decompensation
Thyroid storm is a clinical diagnosis involving severe systemic dysfunction, particularly neurological, cardiovascular and thermoregulatory abnormalities.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-052

What is the most appropriate action?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Activate emergency medical services immediately
Thyroid storm is a life-threatening endocrine emergency requiring hospital-level monitoring and immediate multiagent treatment.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Sepsis ● Serotonin syndrome ● Neuroleptic malignant syndrome ● Stimulant intoxication ● Pheochromocytoma crisis ● Severe heat illness NPLEX trap A thyroid hormone level alone does not determine whether thyroid storm is present. The diagnosis depends heavily on systemic clinical findings. Case overview Known hyperthyroidism + high fever + extreme tachycardia + delirium or organ failure = thyroid storm until proven otherwise.
14

Anaphylaxis

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 29-year-old man develops diffuse itching, facial swelling, throat tightness and difficulty breathing several minutes after eating a dessert containing peanuts. Medical history ● Peanut allergy ● Mild asthma Vital signs ● Blood pressure: 78/46 mmHg ● Heart rate: 132/min ● Respiratory rate: 32/min ● Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air Physical examination The patient has diffuse urticaria, swollen lips, inspiratory stridor and bilateral wheezing. He appears frightened and is becoming drowsy.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-053

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Anaphylaxis
Rapid involvement of the skin, airway, respiratory system and circulation after allergen exposure fulfills the clinical pattern of anaphylaxis.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-054

Which finding represents the greatest immediate threat?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Stridor with hypotension
Stridor indicates upper-airway compromise, while hypotension indicates distributive shock.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-055

What is the first-line treatment?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Intramuscular epinephrine
Intramuscular epinephrine administered promptly into the anterolateral thigh is the first-line treatment. Antihistamines and corticosteroids do not replace epinephrine.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-056

Which action is most appropriate after administering epinephrine?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Activate EMS and monitor airway, breathing and circulation
Anaphylaxis can progress rapidly or recur after initial improvement. Appropriate positioning, repeat assessment and emergency transport are required.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Acute severe asthma ● Angioedema ● Vasovagal reaction ● Panic attack ● Foreign-body airway obstruction NPLEX trap Do not delay epinephrine while waiting for every diagnostic criterion to appear. A rash may also be absent in severe anaphylaxis. Case overview Rapid multisystem allergic reaction involving airway, breathing or circulation requires immediate intramuscular epinephrine.
15

Moderate-to-Severe Croup

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic with a barking cough, hoarse voice and noisy breathing. The illness began with rhinorrhea and low-grade fever one day earlier. Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.0°C ● Heart rate: 148/min ● Respiratory rate: 38/min ● Oxygen saturation: 93% on room air Physical examination The child has inspiratory stridor while resting, suprasternal retractions and decreased air entry. The child is alert but agitated. There is no drooling.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-057

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Viral croup
A barking cough, hoarseness and inspiratory stridor following a viral prodrome are characteristic of croup.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-058

Which finding indicates clinically important upper-airway obstruction?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Stridor at rest
Stridor at rest, retractions, agitation, poor air entry or cyanosis indicate more significant airway narrowing.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-059

Which finding would make epiglottitis more likely?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Drooling with tripod positioning and absence of a barking cough
Epiglottitis more often presents with high fever, severe sore throat, drooling, dysphagia, muffled voice and tripod positioning.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-060

What is the most appropriate disposition?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Urgent emergency assessment and airway-focused treatment
Stridor at rest and retractions require prompt treatment and monitoring. Agitating a child with critical upper-airway obstruction may worsen the obstruction. Croup is characterized by barking cough, hoarseness and inspiratory stridor; corticosteroids are a mainstay of treatment, with nebulized epinephrine used for more severe symptoms.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Epiglottitis ● Bacterial tracheitis ● Foreign-body aspiration ● Retropharyngeal abscess ● Anaphylaxis NPLEX trap Do not force a distressed child with possible epiglottitis to lie supine or undergo an unnecessary throat examination. Case overview Barking cough and hoarseness suggest croup; drooling, tripod positioning and toxic appearance suggest a more dangerous alternative.
16

Testicular Torsion

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 16-year-old boy develops sudden severe left testicular pain while sleeping. He has nausea and has vomited twice. He denies dysuria, urethral discharge and recent trauma. Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.1°C ● Blood pressure: 126/76 mmHg ● Heart rate: 108/min Physical examination The left testis is swollen, tender and positioned higher than the right. It lies in a horizontal orientation. The left cremasteric reflex is absent.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-061

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Testicular torsion
Sudden severe unilateral testicular pain, nausea, a high-riding horizontal testis and an absent cremasteric reflex strongly suggest spermatic-cord torsion.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-062

Which presentation would be more consistent with epididymitis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Gradual pain with dysuria and urinary symptoms
Epididymitis often develops more gradually and may be associated with urinary symptoms, urethral discharge or infection risk.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-063

Which physical finding most strongly supports torsion?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Absent cremasteric reflex on the affected side
Although no single finding is perfect, an absent cremasteric reflex combined with the clinical history increases concern for torsion.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-064

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Arrange emergency surgical assessment without unnecessary delay
Testicular torsion is a time-sensitive surgical emergency. When clinical suspicion is high, imaging should not cause avoidable delay in surgical exploration.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Epididymitis ● Torsion of the appendix testis ● Incarcerated inguinal hernia ● Testicular trauma ● Orchitis NPLEX trap Pain relief with elevation of the testicle is not sufficiently reliable to exclude torsion. Case overview Sudden testicular pain + nausea + high-riding testis + absent cremasteric reflex = immediate surgical referral.
17

Giant Cell Arteritis

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 74-year-old woman presents with a new right-sided temporal headache, scalp tenderness and fatigue. She reports pain in her jaw while chewing and two brief episodes of blurred vision in the right eye. She has also experienced morning stiffness in both shoulders for several months. Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.5°C ● Blood pressure: 146/82 mmHg ● Heart rate: 88/min Physical examination The right temporal artery is tender, thickened and has reduced pulsation. Shoulder movement is painful but neurological examination is otherwise normal.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-065

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Giant cell arteritis
New headache after age 50, temporal-artery abnormalities, jaw claudication, constitutional symptoms and transient visual disturbance strongly suggest giant cell arteritis.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-066

Which symptom is particularly predictive of cranial arterial ischemia?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Jaw claudication
Pain and fatigue of the jaw muscles during chewing are strongly associated with ischemia in the external carotid arterial distribution.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-067

What is the most serious complication?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Permanent visual loss
Inflammation and occlusion of arteries supplying the optic nerve can cause irreversible blindness.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-068

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Arrange urgent medical assessment and immediate treatment for suspected disease
Treatment should not be delayed when clinical suspicion is high, particularly when visual symptoms are present. Diagnostic confirmation may involve temporal-artery biopsy or vascular imaging.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important association The shoulder and hip girdle stiffness suggests coexisting polymyalgia rheumatica. Important differentials ● Migraine ● Tension headache ● Temporomandibular joint disorder ● Intracranial mass ● Carotid or vertebral vascular disease NPLEX trap A normal neurological examination does not exclude giant cell arteritis or imminent visual loss. Case overview New headache after age 50 + jaw claudication + temporal tenderness + visual symptoms = immediate action.
18

Necrotizing Soft-Tissue Infection

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 59-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents with severe pain in his left lower leg. He scratched the leg on a metal shelf two days ago. The area has rapidly become swollen and discoloured. He reports fever, vomiting and profound weakness. Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.4°C ● Blood pressure: 86/54 mmHg ● Heart rate: 132/min ● Respiratory rate: 28/min ● Oxygen saturation: 94% Physical examination The lower leg is edematous with rapidly spreading erythema, violaceous discoloration and several hemorrhagic bullae. The pain extends far beyond the visible skin changes. Crepitus is present.
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-069

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Necrotizing soft-tissue infection
Severe pain out of proportion to visible findings, rapid progression, systemic toxicity, bullae and crepitus strongly suggest a necrotizing infection.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-070

Which early feature is particularly concerning?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Pain extending beyond the visible erythema
Early infection may spread along deeper fascial planes before dramatic surface changes become visible.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-071

Which finding suggests advanced tissue necrosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hemorrhagic bullae and violaceous skin
Bullae, skin anesthesia, dusky discoloration, crepitus and shock are ominous findings.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-072

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Arrange immediate emergency transfer for surgical evaluation
Necrotizing infections require immediate hospital treatment, broad antimicrobial coverage and urgent surgical exploration or debridement.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Severe cellulitis ● Compartment syndrome ● Deep-vein thrombosis ● Pyomyositis ● Gas gangrene ● Calciphylaxis NPLEX trap Do not wait for crepitus, bullae or skin necrosis before considering the diagnosis. These may be late findings. Case overview Rapid progression + disproportionate pain + systemic toxicity = necrotizing infection until excluded.
19

Cervical Radiculopathy

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 47-year-old office worker presents with neck pain radiating into the right lateral forearm, thumb and index finger. The symptoms worsen when he rotates and extends his neck toward the affected side. He denies trauma, fever, gait disturbance and bladder dysfunction. Physical examination ● Mild weakness of right elbow flexion and wrist extension ● Reduced right biceps reflex ● Decreased sensation over the thumb ● No lower-extremity hyperreflexia ● Normal gait
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-073

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. C6 cervical radiculopathy
Pain and sensory change involving the lateral forearm and thumb, reduced biceps reflex and weakness of elbow flexion or wrist extension are consistent with C6 nerve-root involvement.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-074

Which examination test is most appropriate?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Spurling test
The Spurling test uses cervical extension, lateral flexion and axial compression to reproduce radicular symptoms. A positive test supports compressive cervical radiculopathy.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-075

Which finding would indicate possible cervical myelopathy rather than isolated radiculopathy?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Gait disturbance with lower-extremity hyperreflexia
Myelopathy may cause gait imbalance, hand clumsiness, upper-motor-neuron signs, pathological reflexes and bowel or bladder dysfunction.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-076

What is the most appropriate initial approach in this stable patient?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Conservative management with reassessment for neurological progression
Many uncomplicated cervical radiculopathies can initially be managed conservatively. Progressive weakness, myelopathy, trauma, malignancy risk, infection or constitutional symptoms would require expedited imaging and specialist assessment. A positive Spurling test helps confirm cervical radiculopathy but is not sufficiently sensitive to exclude it when negative.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Median neuropathy ● Brachial plexopathy ● Shoulder pathology ● Thoracic outlet syndrome ● Cervical myelopathy ● Pancoast tumour NPLEX trap Do not confuse a single nerve-root lesion with a peripheral mononeuropathy. Compare the dermatomal pattern, reflexes, myotomes and provocative tests. Case overview Dermatomal pain + myotomal weakness + reflex change = radiculopathy; long-tract signs suggest myelopathy.
20

Anterior Cruciate Ligament Tear

4 questions · Focused Diagnosis, Red Flags & Referral

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 24-year-old soccer player reports twisting the right knee while abruptly changing direction. She heard a “pop,” fell to the ground and developed substantial knee swelling within two hours. She now reports instability and a sensation that the knee will give way. Physical examination ● Moderate knee effusion ● Reduced flexion because of swelling ● Positive Lachman test ● Increased anterior tibial translation with a soft endpoint ● No obvious deformity ● Distal pulses and sensation are intact
Question 1 of 4NPLEX-PCD-077

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
A non-contact pivoting injury, audible pop, rapid hemarthrosis and knee instability are characteristic of an ACL tear.
Question 2 of 4NPLEX-PCD-078

Which examination test is most useful for assessing the ACL?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Lachman test
The Lachman test assesses anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur, with a soft or absent endpoint suggesting ACL disruption.
Question 3 of 4NPLEX-PCD-079

Which test is most appropriate for a possible associated meniscal tear?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. McMurray test
The McMurray test assesses meniscal pathology and may reproduce joint-line pain or clicking.
Question 4 of 4NPLEX-PCD-080

Which new finding would require urgent rather than routine assessment?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Absent distal pulse or increasing sensory loss
Neurovascular abnormalities after a knee injury raise concern for knee dislocation or vascular injury, even if the joint has spontaneously reduced. For an isolated ACL injury with intact neurovascular status, early protected activity, swelling control and timely sports-medicine or orthopedic assessment are appropriate. Clinical evaluation commonly includes history, knee examination and imaging for associated injuries.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Meniscal tear ● Medial collateral ligament injury ● Patellar dislocation ● Tibial plateau fracture ● Osteochondral injury ● Multiligament knee injury NPLEX trap Rapid swelling after a twisting injury suggests hemarthrosis and significant intra-articular injury. Delayed swelling is more typical of a smaller effusion or some meniscal injuries. Case overview Pivoting mechanism + pop + rapid effusion + positive Lachman test = ACL injury.
21

Acute Aortic Dissection

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 63-year-old man presents with sudden, severe chest pain that began while he was lifting a heavy object. He describes the pain as “tearing” and says it radiates between his shoulder blades. Medical history ● Poorly controlled hypertension ● Tobacco use ● Hyperlipidemia Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.7°C ● Right-arm blood pressure: 198/106 mmHg ● Left-arm blood pressure: 168/92 mmHg ● Heart rate: 112/min ● Respiratory rate: 24/min ● Oxygen saturation: 95% on room air Physical examination The patient is pale and diaphoretic. The right radial pulse is stronger than the left. A new early diastolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-081

Which historical feature most strongly supports acute aortic dissection?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: B. Abrupt maximal pain radiating to the back
Aortic dissection typically causes sudden, severe pain that is maximal at onset and may radiate to the back.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-082

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute aortic dissection
Abrupt tearing pain, unequal arm pressures, pulse asymmetry, severe hypertension, and a new aortic-regurgitation murmur strongly support dissection.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-083

Which examination finding is most concerning for extension into a major arterial branch?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Unequal peripheral pulses
Pulse or blood-pressure differences suggest impaired blood flow into an arterial branch.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-084

Which new finding would indicate neurological involvement?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Sudden unilateral weakness
Dissection may compromise carotid or spinal arteries, causing stroke or spinal-cord ischemia.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-085

What is the most appropriate next step?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Arrange emergency medical transport
Aortic dissection is a time-sensitive vascular emergency requiring immediate imaging, blood-pressure control, and surgical assessment.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-086

Which action should be avoided before dissection is excluded?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: C. Treating the condition as uncomplicated musculoskeletal pain
Reassurance, manipulation, or delayed outpatient evaluation could result in catastrophic progression.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Acute coronary syndrome ● Pulmonary embolism ● Pericarditis ● Tension pneumothorax ● Esophageal rupture NPLEX trap Myocardial ischemia can occur during aortic dissection. Do not assume that ischemic electrocardiographic findings automatically exclude dissection.
22

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 24-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness, and increasing thirst. She has been unwell with influenza-like symptoms and has taken very little insulin during the past two days. Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.1°C ● Blood pressure: 94/60 mmHg ● Heart rate: 124/min ● Respiratory rate: 30/min and deep ● Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air Physical examination She is drowsy but arousable. Her mucous membranes are dry. Her breath has a fruity odor. Diffuse mild abdominal tenderness is present without rigidity.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-087

Which aspect of the history most likely precipitated the current condition?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Reduced insulin administration during an infection
Infection and insulin omission are common precipitants of diabetic ketoacidosis.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-088

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, vomiting, altered consciousness, fruity breath, and deep respirations are characteristic.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-089

What is the term for the patient’s respiratory pattern?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Kussmaul respiration
Deep, rapid breathing represents respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-090

Which bedside test is most important initially?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Capillary blood glucose
Immediate glucose measurement helps confirm severe hyperglycemia, although definitive assessment also requires ketones, electrolytes, and acid-base evaluation.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-091

Which complication requires particularly close monitoring during treatment?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Potassium disturbance
Total-body potassium is depleted in diabetic ketoacidosis, even when the initial serum potassium is normal or elevated. Insulin treatment can rapidly lower serum potassium.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-092

What is the most appropriate disposition?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency hospital assessment
The patient has dehydration, altered consciousness, hypotension, and probable metabolic acidosis requiring intravenous fluids, insulin, electrolyte monitoring, and treatment of the precipitating cause.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state ● Sepsis ● Starvation ketosis ● Alcoholic ketoacidosis ● Acute abdomen ● Toxic ingestion NPLEX trap Abdominal pain may occur in diabetic ketoacidosis. Reassess the abdomen after metabolic stabilization before assuming a surgical diagnosis.
23

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 46-year-old woman develops a sudden severe headache while exercising. She describes it as “the worst headache of my life.” She vomited and briefly lost consciousness. Medical history ● Hypertension ● Tobacco use ● Sister with a cerebral aneurysm Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.0°C ● Blood pressure: 188/104 mmHg ● Heart rate: 98/min ● Respiratory rate: 20/min Physical examination The patient is photophobic and has neck stiffness. She is alert but appears distressed. No focal neurological deficit is initially detected.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-093

Which history feature is most concerning?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Headache reaching maximal intensity within seconds
A thunderclap headache is a major red flag for subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-094

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Sudden maximal headache, vomiting, transient loss of consciousness, meningismus, and vascular risk factors strongly suggest hemorrhage.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-095

Which physical finding may be present despite the absence of meningitis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Nuchal rigidity
Blood within the subarachnoid space can irritate the meninges and produce neck stiffness.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-096

Which alternative diagnosis must also be urgently considered in a thunderclap headache?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction or cervical arterial dissection
Several dangerous vascular disorders may cause sudden severe headache and require urgent neurovascular evaluation.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-097

What is the most appropriate next step?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency transfer for neuroimaging
Subarachnoid hemorrhage can be present despite an initially normal focal neurological examination.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-098

Which change would indicate clinical deterioration?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Declining level of consciousness
Reduced consciousness may indicate rebleeding, hydrocephalus, rising intracranial pressure, or expanding hemorrhage.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Migraine ● Meningitis ● Cervical arterial dissection ● Cerebral venous thrombosis ● Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome ● Pituitary apoplexy NPLEX trap Do not exclude subarachnoid hemorrhage because the neurological examination is initially normal.
24

Small-Bowel Obstruction

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 58-year-old woman presents with cramping abdominal pain, repeated bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, and inability to pass stool or flatus for 24 hours. Medical history ● Previous open abdominal hysterectomy ● Hypertension Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.8°C ● Blood pressure: 104/66 mmHg ● Heart rate: 112/min ● Respiratory rate: 22/min Physical examination The abdomen is distended and tympanitic. High-pitched bowel sounds are heard. There is diffuse tenderness without initial rigidity.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-099

Which historical factor most strongly increases the risk of this condition?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Previous abdominal surgery
Postoperative adhesions are a common cause of small-bowel obstruction.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-100

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Small-bowel obstruction
Colicky pain, vomiting, distension, obstipation, tympany, and high-pitched bowel sounds strongly support mechanical obstruction.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-101

Which finding would suggest bowel ischemia or strangulation?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Continuous severe pain with guarding and fever
Continuous pain, peritoneal signs, fever, tachycardia, acidosis, or shock suggest compromised bowel blood supply.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-102

Which examination finding is expected early in mechanical obstruction?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. High-pitched tinkling bowel sounds
Early mechanical obstruction may produce hyperactive, high-pitched sounds. Bowel sounds can become diminished later.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-103

What is the most appropriate next step?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent emergency evaluation
The patient requires fluid resuscitation, electrolyte assessment, abdominal imaging, decompression when indicated, and surgical consultation.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-104

Which intervention should be avoided?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Oral laxatives in suspected complete obstruction
Laxatives may worsen pain, distension, or perforation risk and should not delay appropriate evaluation.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Ileus ● Large-bowel obstruction ● Gastroenteritis ● Mesenteric ischemia ● Perforated viscus ● Severe constipation NPLEX trap Temporary passage of stool early in the illness does not fully exclude bowel obstruction because distal contents may still be expelled.
25

Ovarian Torsion

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 31-year-old woman presents with sudden severe right-sided pelvic pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She has a known 7-cm ovarian cyst. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She denies vaginal bleeding. Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.4°C ● Blood pressure: 118/74 mmHg ● Heart rate: 108/min ● Respiratory rate: 20/min Physical examination There is marked right-lower-quadrant and pelvic tenderness. Guarding is mild. No abdominal rigidity is present.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-105

Which historical factor most increases the likelihood of ovarian torsion?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Large ovarian cyst
An ovarian mass increases ovarian mobility and the risk of twisting around its vascular pedicle.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-106

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Ovarian torsion
Sudden unilateral pelvic pain with nausea and vomiting in a patient with an ovarian mass is highly concerning for torsion.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-107

Which diagnosis must be excluded in every reproductive-age patient with acute pelvic pain?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Ectopic pregnancy
Pregnancy testing is essential because ectopic pregnancy can present with unilateral pelvic pain and may be life-threatening.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-108

Which characteristic best differentiates torsion from uncomplicated pelvic inflammatory disease?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Abrupt severe unilateral pain with vomiting
Pelvic inflammatory disease more commonly causes gradual bilateral pain, cervical-motion tenderness, discharge, or fever.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-109

What is the most appropriate next step?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent gynecological and surgical evaluation
Ovarian torsion threatens ovarian blood supply and requires timely surgical assessment.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-110

Which statement about imaging is most accurate?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Normal arterial flow does not completely exclude torsion
Intermittent torsion or dual ovarian blood supply may produce detectable flow despite clinically important torsion.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Ectopic pregnancy ● Ruptured ovarian cyst ● Appendicitis ● Pelvic inflammatory disease ● Ureteric stone NPLEX trap A normal Doppler result does not reliably override a highly suspicious clinical presentation.
26

Pediatric Intussusception

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 10-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for repeated episodes of intense crying. During each episode, the child pulls both knees toward the abdomen and becomes pale. Between episodes, the child initially appears tired but comfortable. The child has vomited twice. Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.6°C ● Heart rate: 142/min ● Respiratory rate: 30/min ● Oxygen saturation: 98% Physical examination The abdomen is mildly distended. A sausage-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper abdomen. The diaper contains stool mixed with blood and mucus.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-111

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Intussusception
Episodic severe pain, knee flexion, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and blood-mucus stool are characteristic.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-112

What causes the intermittent nature of the pain?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Periodic bowel contraction around the telescoped segment
Peristaltic contractions against the obstruction produce waves of severe pain.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-113

Which stool description is classically associated with this condition?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Red currant jelly stool
Blood and mucus may create the classic appearance, although this is often a later finding.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-114

Which finding would suggest bowel perforation or advanced ischemia?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Rigid abdomen with shock
Peritoneal signs, severe lethargy, sepsis, or shock suggest perforation or necrotic bowel.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-115

What is the most appropriate next step?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent emergency evaluation
The child requires imaging and possible therapeutic air or contrast enema, with surgical consultation when necessary.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-116

Which diagnosis is more likely when an infant has progressive non-bilious projectile vomiting without episodic pain?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Pyloric stenosis
Pyloric stenosis typically causes progressive non-bilious projectile vomiting in a younger infant and may produce an olive-shaped epigastric mass.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Gastroenteritis ● Volvulus ● Incarcerated hernia ● Pyloric stenosis ● Meckel diverticulum ● Child abuse NPLEX trap The classic triad is not present in every case. Episodic pain and lethargy may precede visible blood in the stool.
27

Acute Pyelonephritis With Sepsis

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 48-year-old woman presents with fever, shaking chills, nausea, dysuria, and left-sided flank pain. She became confused shortly before arrival. Medical history ● Type 2 diabetes mellitus ● Recurrent urinary tract infections Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.5°C ● Blood pressure: 84/52 mmHg ● Heart rate: 128/min ● Respiratory rate: 26/min ● Oxygen saturation: 94% Physical examination The patient is lethargic. Left costovertebral-angle tenderness is marked. The lower abdomen is mildly tender.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-117

What is the most likely primary diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute pyelonephritis
Fever, chills, flank pain, nausea, urinary symptoms, and costovertebral-angle tenderness suggest upper urinary tract infection.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-118

Which finding indicates progression to sepsis or septic shock?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hypotension with altered mental status
Hypotension and organ dysfunction indicate a severe systemic response to infection.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-119

Which examination maneuver is most relevant?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Assessment for costovertebral-angle tenderness
Percussion over the costovertebral angle may reproduce pain from renal inflammation.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-120

Which alternative diagnosis should be considered when flank pain is severe and colicky with hematuria?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Ureteric stone
Nephrolithiasis commonly causes severe colicky flank pain radiating toward the groin and may coexist with infection.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-121

Why is an obstructed infected urinary system especially dangerous?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. It may require urgent drainage in addition to antimicrobial therapy
Infection behind an obstructing stone can progress rapidly and may not resolve without decompression.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-122

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency transfer
The patient has probable septic shock and requires urgent resuscitation, cultures, antimicrobial therapy, and evaluation for urinary obstruction.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Ureteric stone ● Renal abscess ● Acute appendicitis ● Pelvic inflammatory disease ● Diverticulitis ● Musculoskeletal flank pain NPLEX trap A urinary infection in a patient with hypotension, confusion, diabetes, pregnancy, or possible obstruction is not uncomplicated cystitis.
28

Cutaneous Melanoma

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 52-year-old man presents for assessment of a pigmented lesion on his upper back. His spouse reports that the lesion has enlarged and changed colour during the past six months. Medical history ● Multiple blistering sunburns during childhood ● Frequent outdoor work ● Father previously treated for melanoma Physical examination The lesion is 11 mm in diameter, asymmetrical, and has an irregular border. It contains dark brown, black, red, and pale areas. A small area recently bled without trauma.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-123

Which feature is represented by the “E” in the ABCDE melanoma assessment?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Evolution
Evolution refers to change in size, shape, colour, elevation, symptoms, or behaviour over time.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-124

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Cutaneous melanoma
Asymmetry, border irregularity, colour variation, diameter greater than 6 mm, evolution, and spontaneous bleeding are highly concerning.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-125

Which historical feature increases melanoma risk?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. First-degree family history of melanoma
Family history, intense ultraviolet exposure, multiple atypical nevi, and fair skin increase risk.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-126

Which method is generally preferred for initial diagnostic sampling when feasible?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Complete excisional biopsy with narrow margins
Excisional biopsy allows evaluation of the full lesion and measurement of invasion depth.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-127

Which physical characteristic is most concerning?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Irregular pigmentation and recent evolution
Change over time is one of the most important warning signs.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-128

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Prompt dermatological or surgical evaluation for biopsy
Suspicious pigmented lesions require timely histopathological diagnosis.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Dysplastic nevus ● Seborrheic keratosis ● Pigmented basal-cell carcinoma ● Lentigo ● Dermatofibroma ● Subungual hematoma NPLEX trap A lesion does not need to meet every ABCDE criterion to warrant biopsy. Evolution or an “ugly duckling” appearance may be sufficient.
29

Myasthenic Crisis

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 37-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis presents with increasing difficulty swallowing, weak speech, shortness of breath, and inability to hold her head upright. She recently developed pneumonia and was prescribed an antibiotic at an urgent-care clinic. Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.5°C ● Blood pressure: 132/78 mmHg ● Heart rate: 118/min ● Respiratory rate: 30/min ● Oxygen saturation: 91% on room air Physical examination She has bilateral ptosis, fatigable facial weakness, nasal speech, weak cough, and shallow respirations. Sensory examination is normal.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-129

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Myasthenic crisis
Bulbar weakness, weak cough, respiratory compromise, and known myasthenia gravis indicate a potentially life-threatening crisis.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-130

Which feature is characteristic of myasthenia gravis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Weakness worsening with repeated activity
Myasthenic weakness is fatigable and often improves temporarily with rest.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-131

Which examination finding represents the greatest immediate risk?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Weak cough with shallow respirations
Respiratory muscle and bulbar weakness can rapidly lead to aspiration and respiratory failure.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-132

Which common factor may precipitate a myasthenic crisis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Infection or certain medications
Respiratory infection and medications that impair neuromuscular transmission can worsen myasthenia.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-133

Which bedside assessment is particularly important?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Respiratory muscle function, including vital capacity
Oxygen saturation may remain relatively preserved until late. Serial respiratory measurements help detect deterioration.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-134

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency transfer for airway and respiratory assessment
Myasthenic crisis requires hospital monitoring and may require ventilatory support and disease-specific treatment.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Cholinergic crisis ● Guillain–Barré syndrome ● Botulism ● Brainstem stroke ● Lambert–Eaton syndrome ● Severe electrolyte disturbance NPLEX trap A normal pulse oximetry reading does not reliably exclude early neuromuscular respiratory failure.
30

Acute Compartment Syndrome

6 questions · Acute Clinical Reasoning & Prioritization

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 29-year-old man presents six hours after sustaining a closed tibial fracture during a motor-vehicle collision. His lower leg was immobilized in a circumferential cast. He reports rapidly worsening pain despite opioid medication. Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.2°C ● Blood pressure: 142/86 mmHg ● Heart rate: 116/min ● Respiratory rate: 22/min Physical examination The lower leg is tense and swollen. Passive extension of the toes causes severe pain. Sensation between the first and second toes is reduced. The dorsalis pedis pulse remains palpable.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-135

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute compartment syndrome
Severe escalating pain, pain with passive stretch, tense swelling, and sensory changes after fracture strongly indicate compartment syndrome.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-136

Which is often the earliest important clinical feature?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Pain out of proportion to the injury
Severe disproportionate pain and pain with passive stretch usually occur before late neurovascular findings.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-137

Does the presence of a distal pulse exclude compartment syndrome?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. No, pulses may remain present until late
Compartment pressure can impair tissue perfusion before large-artery flow and palpable pulses are lost.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-138

Which examination finding indicates nerve compromise?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Reduced sensation in the affected nerve distribution
Paresthesia and sensory loss suggest progressive nerve ischemia.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-139

What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent emergency surgical assessment
Definitive treatment may require immediate fasciotomy. Constrictive dressings or casts should be released by appropriately trained emergency personnel.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-140

Which is a late and ominous finding?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Paralysis
Paralysis, pallor, and loss of pulse are late signs and may indicate irreversible tissue damage.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Deep-vein thrombosis ● Arterial injury ● Fracture-associated pain ● Cellulitis ● Necrotizing infection ● Peripheral nerve injury NPLEX trap Do not wait for loss of pulse. A palpable distal pulse does not rule out compartment syndrome.
31

Cardiac Tamponade

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 49-year-old man presents with progressive shortness of breath, chest pressure, weakness, and lightheadedness. He was diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer three months ago. Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.1°C ● Blood pressure: 84/62 mmHg ● Heart rate: 126/min ● Respiratory rate: 28/min ● Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air Physical examination The patient appears distressed. Neck veins are distended while he is sitting upright. Heart sounds are distant. Lungs are relatively clear. Systolic blood pressure decreases noticeably during inspiration.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-141

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Cardiac tamponade
Hypotension, jugular venous distension, muffled heart sounds, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus strongly suggest cardiac tamponade.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-142

Which combination is traditionally called Beck triad?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds
Beck triad reflects impaired cardiac filling due to pericardial pressure.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-143

What is pulsus paradoxus?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. An exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure during inspiration
A marked inspiratory decrease in systolic pressure can occur when pericardial pressure restricts ventricular filling.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-144

Which additional history most strongly increases suspicion for tamponade?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Recent penetrating chest trauma
Tamponade may result from malignancy, trauma, pericarditis, cardiac procedures, or aortic dissection.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-145

Which finding helps distinguish tamponade from left-sided cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Distended neck veins with relatively clear lungs
Tamponade causes obstructive shock and elevated systemic venous pressure without necessarily producing prominent pulmonary edema.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-146

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency transfer for cardiac imaging and drainage assessment
Hemodynamic tamponade requires emergency stabilization and urgent removal of pericardial fluid.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Massive pulmonary embolism ● Tension pneumothorax ● Right ventricular infarction ● Constrictive pericarditis ● Severe heart failure NPLEX trap The complete Beck triad may be absent. Unexplained hypotension with jugular venous distension should prompt consideration of obstructive shock.
32

Acute Mesenteric Ischemia

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden severe central abdominal pain and nausea. She describes the pain as constant and unbearable. Medical history ● Atrial fibrillation ● Hypertension ● Peripheral arterial disease Medications ● Metoprolol ● She stopped taking her anticoagulant three weeks ago Vital signs ● Temperature: 37.4°C ● Blood pressure: 148/86 mmHg ● Heart rate: 118/min, irregularly irregular ● Respiratory rate: 24/min Physical examination The patient appears distressed. The abdomen is initially soft with only mild diffuse tenderness despite the severity of the reported pain.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-147

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute mesenteric ischemia
Abrupt severe abdominal pain out of proportion to the initial examination in a patient with atrial fibrillation strongly suggests acute mesenteric ischemia.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-148

Which risk factor is most relevant?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Atrial fibrillation without anticoagulation
Atrial fibrillation can generate emboli that obstruct mesenteric arterial blood flow.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-149

Which phrase best describes the classic early examination pattern?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Pain out of proportion to physical findings
Early bowel ischemia may produce extreme visceral pain before peritoneal inflammation develops.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-150

Which new finding would suggest bowel infarction or perforation?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Rigidity and rebound tenderness
Peritoneal signs suggest transmural infarction, necrosis, or perforation.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-151

Which alternative diagnosis is most likely when severe abdominal and back pain occurs with hypotension and a pulsatile abdominal mass?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
The combination of abdominal or back pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile mass suggests ruptured aneurysm.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-152

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency transfer for vascular and surgical evaluation
Acute mesenteric ischemia is a time-critical vascular emergency. Delay increases the risk of bowel necrosis, sepsis, and death.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm ● Bowel obstruction ● Perforated peptic ulcer ● Pancreatitis ● Acute cholecystitis ● Renal colic NPLEX trap A relatively benign early abdominal examination does not exclude catastrophic bowel ischemia.
33

Adrenal Crisis

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 38-year-old woman with primary adrenal insufficiency presents with vomiting, diarrhea, profound weakness, abdominal pain, and dizziness. She developed influenza-like symptoms two days earlier and has been unable to keep her medication down. Medications ● Hydrocortisone ● Fludrocortisone Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.4°C ● Blood pressure: 78/46 mmHg ● Heart rate: 124/min ● Respiratory rate: 24/min ● Oxygen saturation: 97% Physical examination The patient is lethargic and dehydrated. Diffuse abdominal tenderness is present without rigidity. Hyperpigmentation is noted over the palmar creases and buccal mucosa.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-153

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Adrenal crisis
Known adrenal insufficiency with infection, vomiting, hypotension, dehydration, and altered mental status strongly suggests adrenal crisis.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-154

Which event most likely precipitated this emergency?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Infection with inability to retain corticosteroid medication
Illness increases cortisol requirements, while vomiting prevents adequate oral replacement.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-155

Which electrolyte pattern is commonly associated with primary adrenal insufficiency?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
Mineralocorticoid deficiency promotes sodium loss, volume depletion, and potassium retention.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-156

Which physical finding supports primary rather than secondary adrenal insufficiency?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hyperpigmentation
Elevated ACTH in primary adrenal failure can cause diffuse hyperpigmentation.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-157

Which competing diagnosis must also be considered in a febrile hypotensive patient?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Septic shock
Infection may both mimic and precipitate adrenal crisis. Both conditions require urgent assessment and may coexist.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-158

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Activate emergency services for immediate corticosteroid and fluid treatment
Treatment should not be delayed for confirmatory testing when adrenal crisis is suspected.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Septic shock ● Hypovolemic shock ● Diabetic ketoacidosis ● Acute gastroenteritis ● Toxic ingestion ● Severe hypothyroidism NPLEX trap Do not delay emergency glucocorticoid treatment while awaiting cortisol results in a clinically unstable patient.
34

Guillain–Barré Syndrome

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 41-year-old man presents with progressive tingling and weakness beginning in both feet and ascending toward the thighs. One week earlier, he recovered from a diarrheal illness. Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.8°C ● Blood pressure: 138/84 mmHg ● Heart rate: 104/min ● Respiratory rate: 20/min ● Oxygen saturation: 97% Physical examination There is symmetric lower-extremity weakness, absent ankle and patellar reflexes, and mild distal paresthesia. Plantar responses are flexor. Cranial nerves are initially intact.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-159

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Guillain–Barré syndrome
Progressive symmetric ascending weakness and areflexia following an infection are characteristic.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-160

Which examination finding most strongly supports this diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Reduced or absent deep-tendon reflexes
Peripheral demyelination commonly causes areflexia or hyporeflexia.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-161

Which finding would indicate impending respiratory compromise?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Weak cough and declining vital capacity
Respiratory muscle weakness can progress before significant oxygen desaturation appears.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-162

Which autonomic complication may occur?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Rapid fluctuations in blood pressure and heart rate
Autonomic instability may produce arrhythmias, labile blood pressure, urinary retention, or ileus.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-163

Which finding would be less typical and should prompt reconsideration of the diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. A clear sensory level on the trunk
A defined sensory level suggests spinal cord disease rather than a diffuse peripheral neuropathy.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-164

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent hospital assessment with respiratory and autonomic monitoring
Guillain–Barré syndrome may progress rapidly to respiratory failure or cardiovascular instability.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Spinal cord compression ● Transverse myelitis ● Myasthenia gravis ● Botulism ● Tick paralysis ● Severe electrolyte disturbance NPLEX trap Normal oxygen saturation does not exclude evolving neuromuscular respiratory failure.
35

Acute Limb Ischemia

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation develops sudden severe pain in the left leg. He reports numbness and difficulty moving the foot. Medications ● Metoprolol ● He stopped anticoagulation because of bruising Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.9°C ● Blood pressure: 146/84 mmHg ● Heart rate: 112/min, irregularly irregular ● Respiratory rate: 20/min Physical examination The left foot is pale, cool, and mottled. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent. Capillary refill is markedly delayed. Sensation and motor strength are reduced.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-165

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute limb ischemia
Sudden pain, pallor, pulselessness, coolness, sensory loss, and weakness indicate abrupt arterial occlusion.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-166

Which underlying condition most likely caused this event?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Atrial fibrillation
A cardiac embolus may abruptly obstruct a peripheral artery.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-167

Which set of findings represents the classic “six Ps”?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, and poikilothermia
These findings describe acute arterial insufficiency.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-168

Which finding indicates a threatened limb?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Sensory loss with muscle weakness
Neurological deficits indicate severe ischemia and increase the urgency of revascularization.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-169

Which feature would be more consistent with deep-vein thrombosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Warm swollen limb with preserved arterial pulses
Venous thrombosis usually causes swelling, warmth, and tenderness without loss of arterial pulses.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-170

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency vascular assessment
Acute limb ischemia is a limb-threatening emergency requiring immediate anticoagulation and revascularization assessment.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Deep-vein thrombosis ● Compartment syndrome ● Phlegmasia cerulea dolens ● Acute neuropathy ● Severe vasospasm ● Aortic dissection with branch involvement NPLEX trap Do not apply compression or massage when acute arterial occlusion is suspected.
36

Retinal Detachment

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 57-year-old highly myopic man reports sudden flashes of light in the left eye followed by numerous new floaters. He now sees a dark curtain moving across the lateral part of his visual field. He denies eye pain. Vital signs Normal. Physical examination Visual acuity is reduced in the affected eye. The external eye is not red. Pupils are equal, although a relative afferent pupillary defect may be present.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-171

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Retinal detachment
Flashes, sudden floaters, and a curtain-like visual-field defect are classic warning symptoms.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-172

Which historical factor increases the risk?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. High myopia
High myopia, previous eye surgery, trauma, and retinal tears increase detachment risk.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-173

Which feature distinguishes retinal detachment from acute angle-closure glaucoma?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Painless visual-field loss
Retinal detachment is typically painless, whereas acute angle closure causes marked ocular pain and autonomic symptoms.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-174

What is the meaning of a “curtain” moving across the vision?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Progressive loss of the visual field as the retina separates
The location and progression of the shadow can correspond to the detached retinal area.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-175

Which additional symptom may suggest vitreous hemorrhage or a retinal tear?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Sudden shower of dark floaters
New floaters may represent blood, pigment, or vitreous traction associated with a retinal tear.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-176

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Same-day emergency ophthalmologic assessment
Prompt treatment may prevent extension into the macula and reduce permanent visual loss.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Posterior vitreous detachment ● Vitreous hemorrhage ● Ocular migraine ● Retinal vascular occlusion ● Optic neuritis ● Acute angle-closure glaucoma NPLEX trap Absence of eye pain does not indicate that sudden visual loss is benign.
37

Spinal Epidural Abscess

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 45-year-old man presents with severe midline back pain, fever, and progressive weakness in both legs. Medical history ● Injection-drug use ● Recent skin abscess ● Type 2 diabetes mellitus Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.1°C ● Blood pressure: 102/66 mmHg ● Heart rate: 116/min ● Respiratory rate: 22/min Physical examination There is marked tenderness over the lower thoracic spine. Hip flexion and knee extension are weak bilaterally. Sensation is reduced below the umbilicus. Reflexes are brisk in the lower extremities.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-177

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Spinal epidural abscess
Fever, severe focal spinal pain, infection risk factors, and progressive neurological deficits strongly suggest epidural infection.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-178

Which historical factor most increases suspicion?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Injection-drug use
Bacteremia from injection use or skin infection can seed the epidural space.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-179

Which examination finding suggests spinal cord involvement?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. A sensory level with bilateral upper-motor-neuron signs
A sensory level, bilateral weakness, and hyperreflexia suggest cord compression.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-180

Which additional question is most important?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Whether there is urinary retention or incontinence
Bladder or bowel dysfunction may indicate advanced neurological compression.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-181

Which intervention is contraindicated?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. High-velocity spinal manipulation
Manipulation may worsen injury and delay definitive imaging and surgical treatment.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-182

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency assessment for MRI and surgical consultation
Spinal epidural abscess can rapidly cause irreversible paralysis and sepsis.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Vertebral osteomyelitis ● Discitis ● Epidural hematoma ● Metastatic spinal cord compression ● Cauda equina syndrome ● Mechanical back pain NPLEX trap The full triad of fever, back pain, and neurological deficit may not be present early. Risk factors and progressive symptoms matter.
38

Preeclampsia With Severe Features

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 32-year-old woman at 35 weeks’ gestation presents with severe headache, blurred vision, right-upper-quadrant pain, and rapidly increasing swelling of her hands and face. Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.8°C ● Blood pressure: 174/112 mmHg ● Heart rate: 96/min ● Respiratory rate: 20/min ● Oxygen saturation: 97% Physical examination She has brisk reflexes with two beats of ankle clonus. Facial and hand edema are present. Right-upper-quadrant tenderness is noted.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-183

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Preeclampsia with severe features
Severe hypertension with neurological and hepatic symptoms after 20 weeks’ gestation is highly concerning.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-184

Which finding most strongly indicates severe disease?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Blood pressure of 174/112 mmHg
Severe-range blood pressure substantially increases maternal and fetal risk.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-185

What is the significance of right-upper-quadrant pain?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. It may indicate hepatic involvement or capsular distension
Epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain may reflect severe hepatic involvement, including HELLP syndrome.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-186

Which finding suggests increased seizure risk?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hyperreflexia with clonus
Neurological irritability, severe headache, visual symptoms, and clonus increase concern for eclampsia.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-187

What is eclampsia?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. New-onset seizure in a patient with preeclampsia
Eclampsia is a life-threatening obstetric emergency.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-188

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate obstetric emergency assessment
Severe hypertension and neurological symptoms require immediate maternal and fetal assessment, seizure prophylaxis, blood-pressure treatment, and delivery planning.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Gestational hypertension ● Migraine ● Intracranial hemorrhage ● Acute fatty liver of pregnancy ● HELLP syndrome ● Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura NPLEX trap Edema is neither required nor sufficient for diagnosis. Severe blood pressure and end-organ symptoms determine urgency.
39

Delirium Due to Infection in an Older Adult

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile An 82-year-old woman is brought by her daughter because of sudden confusion, agitation, and visual hallucinations that began yesterday. She was independent and cognitively intact three days ago. Medical history ● Hypertension ● Osteoarthritis ● Mild urinary incontinence Medications ● Amlodipine ● Acetaminophen ● Recently started diphenhydramine for sleep Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.3°C ● Blood pressure: 102/64 mmHg ● Heart rate: 110/min ● Respiratory rate: 24/min ● Oxygen saturation: 93% Physical examination Attention fluctuates during the interview. She cannot recite the months backward. Suprapubic tenderness is present. No focal neurological deficit is detected.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-189

What is the most likely syndrome?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Delirium
Acute onset, fluctuating attention, altered awareness, and perceptual disturbance are characteristic of delirium.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-190

Which finding best distinguishes delirium from dementia?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute onset with fluctuating attention
Dementia generally develops gradually, whereas delirium evolves over hours to days.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-191

Which factor may be contributing to the presentation?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Anticholinergic medication use
Diphenhydramine can precipitate confusion, urinary retention, and delirium in older adults.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-192

Which underlying cause is most likely in this patient?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Infection, possibly involving the urinary tract
Fever, tachycardia, suprapubic tenderness, and acute cognitive change suggest infection with systemic involvement.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-193

Which finding would require immediate stroke evaluation?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. New unilateral weakness or aphasia
Focal neurological deficits raise concern for acute cerebrovascular disease.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-194

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent medical assessment for infection, medication effects, and metabolic causes
Delirium is a medical emergency requiring identification and treatment of the precipitating cause.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Dementia ● Stroke ● Sepsis ● Medication toxicity ● Hypoglycemia ● Electrolyte disturbance ● Urinary retention ● Hypoxia NPLEX trap Do not attribute acute confusion in an older adult to age or chronic dementia without searching for a reversible medical cause.
40

Achilles Tendon Rupture

6 questions · Advanced Multisystem Clinical Diagnosis

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 44-year-old recreational tennis player reports sudden pain in the back of the left ankle while pushing off to reach a ball. He felt as though someone had kicked him and heard a snapping sound. Physical examination There is swelling and tenderness several centimetres above the calcaneus. A palpable tendon gap is present. The patient cannot perform a single-leg heel raise.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-195

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Achilles tendon rupture
A sudden snapping sensation, posterior ankle pain, palpable defect, and loss of plantar-flexion strength strongly support rupture.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-196

Which examination test is most appropriate?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Thompson squeeze test
Squeezing the calf should produce plantar flexion when the Achilles tendon is intact.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-197

What constitutes a positive Thompson test?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Absence of plantar flexion when the calf is squeezed
Failure of the foot to plantar-flex indicates disruption of the tendon mechanism.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-198

Which medication exposure may increase the risk of tendon rupture?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Fluoroquinolone antibiotic use
Fluoroquinolones and systemic corticosteroids are recognized tendon-injury risk factors.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-199

Which feature helps distinguish rupture from a simple ankle sprain?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Palpable tendon gap with inability to perform a heel raise
Functional loss of plantar flexion and a positive Thompson test point toward Achilles rupture.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-200

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immobilize in plantar flexion and arrange prompt orthopedic assessment
Early immobilization and specialist assessment help determine operative versus nonoperative management.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Gastrocnemius strain ● Plantaris rupture ● Retrocalcaneal bursitis ● Ankle sprain ● Deep-vein thrombosis ● Calcaneal fracture NPLEX trap Some plantar flexion may remain because other muscles can still act. Preserved weak movement does not exclude complete Achilles rupture.
41

Tension Pneumothorax

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 27-year-old man is brought to the clinic after a motorcycle collision. He reports severe right-sided chest pain and rapidly worsening shortness of breath. Vital signs ● Blood pressure: 78/48 mmHg ● Heart rate: 138/min ● Respiratory rate: 34/min ● Oxygen saturation: 82% on room air Physical examination The patient is distressed and cyanotic. The right side of the chest expands less than the left. Breath sounds are absent on the right, and percussion is hyperresonant. Neck veins are distended. The trachea appears displaced toward the left.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-201

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Tension pneumothorax
Severe respiratory distress, unilateral absent breath sounds, hyperresonance, hypotension, jugular venous distension, and tracheal deviation strongly indicate tension pneumothorax.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-202

What is the principal mechanism causing hypotension?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Reduced venous return to the heart
Increasing intrathoracic pressure compresses the vena cava and mediastinal structures, reducing cardiac preload and producing obstructive shock.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-203

Which finding best distinguishes tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hemodynamic instability
A simple pneumothorax may cause pain and reduced breath sounds, but tension physiology causes hypotension and cardiovascular compromise.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-204

Which finding may be absent until late?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Tracheal deviation
Tracheal deviation is a late and inconsistent sign. Treatment should not be delayed while waiting for it to appear.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-205

What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Emergency decompression and activation of EMS
Tension pneumothorax is diagnosed clinically in an unstable patient. Immediate decompression is required without waiting for imaging.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-206

Which alternative diagnosis may also produce hypotension, jugular venous distension, and clear lungs?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Cardiac tamponade
Both tension pneumothorax and tamponade produce obstructive shock. Unilateral absent breath sounds and hyperresonance support pneumothorax.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
NPLEX trap Do not delay decompression for radiographic confirmation in a clinically unstable patient.
42

Acute Ascending Cholangitis

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 64-year-old woman presents with fever, shaking chills, right-upper-quadrant pain, nausea, and yellowing of her eyes. Medical history ● Gallstones ● Type 2 diabetes mellitus Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.3°C ● Blood pressure: 86/54 mmHg ● Heart rate: 126/min ● Respiratory rate: 26/min ● Oxygen saturation: 95% Physical examination The patient is jaundiced, confused, and diaphoretic. There is right-upper-quadrant tenderness without marked abdominal rigidity.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-207

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Acute ascending cholangitis
Fever, jaundice, and right-upper-quadrant pain indicate Charcot triad and strongly suggest infection of an obstructed biliary system.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-208

Which three findings make up Charcot triad?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Fever, jaundice, and right-upper-quadrant pain
Charcot triad is the classic presentation of acute cholangitis.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-209

Which additional findings constitute Reynolds pentad?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hypotension and altered mental status
Charcot triad plus hypotension and altered consciousness indicates severe cholangitis with sepsis.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-210

Which underlying process most commonly causes this condition?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Biliary obstruction with bacterial infection
Obstruction raises biliary pressure and permits bacterial proliferation and systemic spread.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-211

Which finding would be more typical of uncomplicated biliary colic?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Episodic postprandial pain without fever or jaundice
Biliary colic causes transient pain from cystic-duct obstruction but does not usually produce systemic infection.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-212

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency transfer for resuscitation and biliary drainage assessment
Severe cholangitis requires urgent antimicrobial treatment, fluid resuscitation, and relief of biliary obstruction.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Acute cholecystitis ● Gallstone pancreatitis ● Acute hepatitis ● Liver abscess ● Peptic-ulcer disease ● Right-lower-lobe pneumonia NPLEX trap Right-upper-quadrant pain with fever and jaundice is not uncomplicated gallbladder pain.
43

Neutropenic Sepsis

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 56-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy for acute leukemia presents with weakness, chills, and a temperature of 38.2°C. Her last chemotherapy treatment was eight days ago. Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.2°C ● Blood pressure: 90/56 mmHg ● Heart rate: 120/min ● Respiratory rate: 24/min ● Oxygen saturation: 94% Physical examination The patient appears pale and lethargic. Oral ulcers are present. There is no focal lung finding, abdominal rigidity, or obvious skin infection.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-213

What is the most concerning diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Neutropenic sepsis
Fever following cytotoxic chemotherapy must be treated as neutropenic sepsis until proven otherwise, particularly with hypotension and lethargy.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-214

Which history detail is most relevant?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Chemotherapy eight days earlier
Neutrophil counts often reach their lowest point several days after chemotherapy, increasing infection risk.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-215

Why may focal examination findings be minimal?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Neutropenia can reduce the inflammatory response
Patients may not develop prominent erythema, purulence, or localized inflammation despite serious infection.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-216

Which temperature pattern should trigger urgent evaluation in a chemotherapy patient?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. A new clinically significant fever
Any concerning fever in a patient at risk for neutropenia warrants immediate assessment because deterioration can be rapid.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-217

Which action is inappropriate?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Delaying referral until culture results are available
Cultures should be obtained promptly, but antimicrobial treatment must not be dangerously delayed.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-218

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency hospital assessment
The patient requires urgent cultures, blood counts, broad antimicrobial treatment, fluid resuscitation, and monitoring.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Chemotherapy adverse effects ● Tumour lysis syndrome ● Viral infection ● Pneumonia ● Catheter-associated infection ● Mucositis-related bacteremia NPLEX trap Do not be reassured by the absence of focal infection findings in a neutropenic patient.
44

Infective Endocarditis

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 39-year-old man presents with three weeks of fever, fatigue, night sweats, reduced appetite, and unintentional weight loss. Medical history ● Injection-drug use ● Previous skin abscess ● No known congenital heart disease Vital signs ● Temperature: 38.7°C ● Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg ● Heart rate: 112/min ● Respiratory rate: 20/min Physical examination A new systolic murmur is heard. Several tender red nodules are present on the finger pads. Small linear hemorrhages are visible beneath the fingernails.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-219

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Infective endocarditis
Prolonged fever, constitutional symptoms, injection-drug use, a new murmur, and peripheral vascular or immunologic findings strongly suggest endocarditis.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-220

What are the tender nodules on the finger pads called?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Osler nodes
Osler nodes are tender lesions associated with immune-complex phenomena.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-221

Which lesions are classically painless and found on the palms or soles?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Janeway lesions
Janeway lesions are painless erythematous or hemorrhagic macules associated with septic emboli.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-222

Which acute complication requires immediate neurological assessment?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Sudden focal weakness or aphasia
Embolization from valvular vegetations may cause ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-223

Which diagnostic step is particularly important before antimicrobial treatment when feasible?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Multiple blood-culture sets
Blood cultures help identify the responsible organism. However, treatment should not be delayed in an unstable patient.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-224

What is the most appropriate disposition?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent hospital assessment
Infective endocarditis requires blood cultures, cardiac imaging, intravenous antimicrobial therapy, and evaluation for embolic or valvular complications.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Occult malignancy ● Tuberculosis ● Autoimmune disease ● Acute rheumatic fever ● Viral infection ● Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis NPLEX trap A murmur may be absent early. Persistent unexplained fever in a high-risk patient still requires consideration of endocarditis.
45

Peritonsillar Abscess

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 22-year-old woman presents with severe unilateral throat pain, fever, difficulty swallowing, and a muffled voice. She reports that the pain radiates toward the left ear. Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.0°C ● Blood pressure: 118/72 mmHg ● Heart rate: 116/min ● Respiratory rate: 20/min ● Oxygen saturation: 97% Physical examination The patient has difficulty opening her mouth. The left tonsillar region is swollen, and the uvula is displaced toward the right. She is drooling but has no stridor.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-225

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Peritonsillar abscess
Unilateral severe throat pain, muffled “hot-potato” voice, trismus, drooling, and uvular deviation are characteristic.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-226

What is trismus?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Difficulty opening the mouth
Inflammation and spasm of the muscles of mastication can limit mouth opening.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-227

Which finding indicates possible airway compromise?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Stridor or increasing respiratory effort
Stridor, respiratory distress, inability to handle secretions, or rapidly increasing swelling requires immediate airway management.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-228

Which diagnosis should be considered when there is neck stiffness, posterior pharyngeal swelling, and limited neck extension?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Retropharyngeal abscess
Deep-neck infection can present with neck pain, stiffness, dysphagia, and airway compromise.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-229

Which examination action should be performed cautiously?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Manipulation of a potentially unstable upper airway
Agitation or forceful examination may worsen obstruction in a patient with significant airway narrowing.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-230

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent emergency or otolaryngology assessment
The patient may require airway monitoring, drainage, antimicrobial treatment, and fluid support.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Epiglottitis ● Retropharyngeal abscess ● Severe tonsillitis ● Diphtheria ● Infectious mononucleosis ● Dental abscess NPLEX trap A muffled voice, trismus, drooling, or uvular deviation indicates more than uncomplicated pharyngitis.
46

Suspected Physical Abuse in a Child

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 3-year-old boy is brought for assessment of bruising. His caregiver states that the child “fell while walking across the carpet.” Physical examination Bruises are present on the ears, neck, inner thighs, back, and upper arms. Some bruises are yellow-brown, while others are dark blue. A loop-shaped mark is present on the posterior thigh. The child becomes silent and withdrawn when the caregiver enters the room.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-231

Which finding is most concerning for non-accidental injury?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Bruising on the ears, neck, and protected body surfaces
Accidental bruises commonly occur over bony prominences. Bruises on protected areas or with patterned shapes raise concern for inflicted injury.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-232

Why is the caregiver’s explanation concerning?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. The described mechanism does not adequately explain the injuries
A low-energy fall does not explain multiple bruises in different protected areas or a patterned injury.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-233

What does a loop-shaped bruise suggest?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Injury caused by an object such as a cord
Patterned bruises may reproduce the shape of the object used.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-234

Which additional history should be obtained?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. The child’s developmental abilities and separate accounts from caregivers
The explanation should be assessed against what the child is developmentally capable of doing. Accounts should be documented carefully and objectively.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-235

Which action is inappropriate?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Confronting the caregiver aggressively in front of the child
The clinician should maintain safety, avoid escalating the situation, document objectively, and follow legal safeguarding procedures.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-236

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Ensure immediate safety and initiate required child-protection reporting
Suspected child abuse requires timely safeguarding action according to applicable reporting law and clinical protocol.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Accidental trauma ● Bleeding disorder ● Cultural or therapeutic skin practices ● Connective-tissue disorder ● Vasculitis ● Dermatological disease NPLEX trap The clinician does not need to prove abuse before making a mandated report. Reasonable suspicion is sufficient.
47

Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 71-year-old man presents with sudden painless loss of vision in the right eye. The loss occurred 45 minutes ago. Medical history ● Atrial fibrillation ● Carotid artery disease ● Hypertension ● Tobacco use Physical examination Visual acuity is markedly reduced in the right eye. A relative afferent pupillary defect is present. The eye is not red or painful. Funduscopic examination suggests a pale retina with a central red fovea.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-237

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Central retinal artery occlusion
Sudden profound monocular visual loss without pain in a patient with vascular risk factors strongly suggests retinal arterial occlusion.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-238

What is the classic funduscopic appearance?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Pale retina with a cherry-red spot
Retinal ischemia produces pallor while the fovea retains a red appearance from the underlying choroidal circulation.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-239

Which systemic source should be investigated?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Carotid or cardiac embolic disease
Retinal arterial occlusion may result from emboli originating in carotid or cardiac circulation.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-240

Which feature distinguishes this condition from acute angle-closure glaucoma?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Painless visual loss without a red eye
Angle closure typically causes marked pain, redness, corneal haze, and an abnormal pupil.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-241

Why should a neurological assessment also be performed?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Retinal artery occlusion may represent an ischemic stroke equivalent
The patient may have concurrent or imminent cerebral ischemia and requires vascular evaluation.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-242

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immediate emergency stroke and ophthalmologic assessment
The opportunity to preserve vision is time-sensitive, and the underlying vascular source requires urgent evaluation.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Retinal detachment ● Vitreous hemorrhage ● Central retinal vein occlusion ● Optic neuritis ● Giant cell arteritis ● Ocular migraine NPLEX trap Sudden painless visual loss is an emergency even when the eye appears externally normal.
48

Femoral Neck Fracture

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile An 81-year-old woman falls from standing height and develops severe left hip and groin pain. She cannot bear weight. Medical history ● Osteoporosis ● Previous vertebral compression fracture ● Long-term corticosteroid use Vital signs ● Temperature: 36.8°C ● Blood pressure: 146/82 mmHg ● Heart rate: 102/min ● Respiratory rate: 18/min Physical examination The left leg appears shortened and externally rotated. Gentle movement of the hip produces severe pain. Distal pulses and sensation are intact.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-243

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Femoral neck fracture
Hip pain, inability to bear weight, and a shortened externally rotated limb after a fall are classic findings.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-244

Which risk factor is most clinically relevant?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Osteoporosis
Reduced bone density substantially increases fragility-fracture risk after low-energy trauma.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-245

Which complication is particularly associated with an intracapsular femoral-neck fracture?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Disruption of the femoral-head blood supply can cause nonunion and avascular necrosis.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-246

Can a patient with an impacted hip fracture sometimes still bear limited weight?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Yes, limited weight-bearing does not exclude fracture
Some nondisplaced or impacted fractures have less obvious physical findings.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-247

Which additional issue should be assessed after the fall?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. The cause of the fall and possible head injury
Syncope, arrhythmia, medication effects, neurological events, and head trauma may require concurrent evaluation.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-248

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Immobilize, provide appropriate support, and arrange urgent hospital assessment
The patient requires analgesia, imaging, perioperative assessment, and fracture management.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Pelvic fracture ● Hip dislocation ● Acetabular fracture ● Severe osteoarthritis ● Greater-trochanteric pain syndrome ● Lumbar radiculopathy NPLEX trap Normal initial radiographs do not always exclude an occult hip fracture when clinical suspicion remains high.
49

Serotonin Syndrome

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 35-year-old man presents with agitation, sweating, diarrhea, tremor, and fever. He takes sertraline and began linezolid two days ago for a resistant skin infection. He also uses an over-the-counter product containing dextromethorphan. Vital signs ● Temperature: 39.2°C ● Blood pressure: 168/94 mmHg ● Heart rate: 132/min ● Respiratory rate: 26/min ● Oxygen saturation: 96% Physical examination The patient is restless and confused. Pupils are dilated. Tremor, inducible ankle clonus, ocular clonus, and marked lower-extremity hyperreflexia are present.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-249

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Serotonin syndrome
Exposure to several serotonergic agents combined with agitation, autonomic instability, clonus, and hyperreflexia strongly indicates serotonin toxicity.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-250

Which examination finding is especially characteristic?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Clonus and hyperreflexia
Neuromuscular hyperactivity, particularly clonus, is a key feature of serotonin syndrome.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-251

Which medication combination likely precipitated the syndrome?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Sertraline, linezolid, and dextromethorphan
Linezolid has monoamine-oxidase-inhibiting properties, and dextromethorphan also has serotonergic activity.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-252

Which feature favours serotonin syndrome over neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Rapid onset with clonus and hyperreflexia
Serotonin syndrome often develops rapidly and causes neuromuscular hyperactivity. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome usually evolves more slowly with severe rigidity.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-253

Which complication requires immediate attention?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Hyperthermia and cardiovascular instability
Severe toxicity can cause seizures, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, renal injury, and death.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-254

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Stop serotonergic agents and arrange immediate emergency treatment
The patient requires urgent supportive care, temperature control, sedation when indicated, and management of complications.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Neuroleptic malignant syndrome ● Anticholinergic toxicity ● Sympathomimetic intoxication ● Sepsis ● Thyroid storm ● Malignant hyperthermia NPLEX trap Fever and confusion alone are nonspecific. Clonus and hyperreflexia strongly support serotonin toxicity.
50

Inflammatory Breast Cancer

6 questions · Safety, Emergencies & Referral Decisions

Clinical Case
Patient profile A 46-year-old woman presents with rapidly progressive enlargement and redness of the left breast over six weeks. She reports heaviness but little pain. Antibiotics prescribed for presumed mastitis produced no improvement. She is not pregnant or breastfeeding. Physical examination The left breast is enlarged, warm, and diffusely erythematous. The skin has a thickened “orange-peel” appearance. The nipple is newly retracted. Firm, enlarged left axillary lymph nodes are present. No discrete breast mass is easily palpated.
Question 1 of 6NPLEX-PCD-255

What is the most concerning diagnosis?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Inflammatory breast cancer
Rapid breast enlargement, diffuse erythema, peau d’orange, nipple retraction, lymphadenopathy, and failure to respond to antibiotics are major warning signs.
Question 2 of 6NPLEX-PCD-256

What causes the peau d’orange appearance?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Dermal lymphatic obstruction
Tumour involvement of dermal lymphatics causes edema around hair follicles, producing the orange-peel texture.
Question 3 of 6NPLEX-PCD-257

Which feature makes uncomplicated lactational mastitis less likely?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. The patient is not breastfeeding and did not improve with antibiotics
Mastitis is more common during lactation and should show clinical improvement with appropriate treatment.
Question 4 of 6NPLEX-PCD-258

Does the absence of a clearly palpable mass exclude breast malignancy?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. No, inflammatory breast cancer may lack a discrete mass
The disease may infiltrate breast tissue and dermal lymphatics diffusely rather than forming one distinct lump.
Question 5 of 6NPLEX-PCD-259

Which lymph-node finding is most concerning?

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Firm enlarged ipsilateral axillary nodes
Firm regional lymphadenopathy may indicate malignant spread.
Question 6 of 6NPLEX-PCD-260

What is the most appropriate next step?

Next Case

Answer and Clinical Rationale

Correct answer: A. Urgent breast-imaging and specialist assessment with tissue diagnosis
Inflammatory breast cancer is aggressive and requires rapid diagnostic evaluation and multidisciplinary treatment.
Open case review, important differentials, clinical sequence, or NPLEX trap
Important differentials ● Lactational or non-lactational mastitis ● Breast abscess ● Locally advanced breast carcinoma ● Contact dermatitis ● Fat necrosis ● Congestive breast edema NPLEX trap Persistent inflammatory breast changes that do not respond appropriately to antimicrobial treatment require investigation for malignancy.

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